Subwoofers get quite then loud again

polarity difference....not a phase shift, entirely different....dumbass
Probably both to a degree if taramps is polarity switched, but polarity difference is a phase shift whereas a phase shift isn't necessarily the same as a "polarity switch". Must have dropped out of school before you got to trigonometry.
 
wrong....
180 or -180 degree phase shift = reverse polarity aka from sine to cosine. Ever do a proof or use trigonometric identities in your life?

To OP: The point is anything out of phase is wasted power, when you use two different amps to drive two different speakers in the same airspace you're fighting a lot of different forces, some adjustable, some not, eventually culminating in a headache for +14.6% wattage. Fair chance you're losing more than that in cancellation, better chance you're losing sound quality, and 100% chance you're wasting a lot of time by over-complicating the setup each time you have to tweak it to get the least bad results from it.
 
polarity and phase are completely different....im sure jeff will chime in, im not a descriptive writer and i dont do giant paragraphs
 
polarity and phase are completely different....im sure jeff will chime in, im not a descriptive writer and i dont do giant paragraphs
Besides one being a delay and the other being a total inverse, no. They're mathematically the same, but because music is a finite line, unlike trigonometric waveforms, there is timing to consider and so it's different musically.

Edit: Exactly, as the page shows, here's the difference:

With phase, we are shifting the position of a waveform relative to another in time (degrees of cycles). With polarity, we are positioning the waveform as either right side up, or upside down relative to its original state. I.e. we are flipping the +/- orientation without changing the waveform's position in time.

Music relies on time. So once again, the original statement. "They share an airspace, you may even be experiencing a phase shift between the two brands, I've heard Taramps defaults to reverse speaker wiring so it's possible as one contracts the other expands."

You may be experiencing a phase shift between two brands of amps affecting the airspace of the subs. You may also be experiencing reversed speaker wiring because taramps wires their amps differently. So both, neither being good.
 
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you make no fucking sense at all....always twisting shit around
This is getting old dude, I can't help you beyond this explanation:

The original context there was nothing wrong with, I didn't equate the two at all, in fact I mentioned them separately as two distinct issues caused by mixing and matching amps. Partially because they're different brands which can lead to slight phase shift and partially because taramps are known to be inversed polarity at least sometimes. Then you said one has nothing to do with the other, which is false, they're related, particularly in trigonometry where they are precisely equal in certain functions, in fact their relationship is in large part why trigonometric identities work in the first place. They're less related in audio, but how can you say they don't fit into the same category? lol..

My previous post was to throw you a bone, basically saying maybe it wasn't a good idea on my part to bring trig into an audio explanation since it's not directly equivalent. It's a good tool to point to their similarities without getting too into the mud, but throwing a bone to a contrarian loser is an exercise in futility obviously. A tip for probably my next post where you'll whine about something I didn't say again: If you want to have a point you might have to lay out some facts eventually, not just wait for smarter people to do it for you. I'm just going to wait for them otherwise.
 
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