Okay, so if Ford votes one way and the other 66.6 percent of shareholders vote the other way, how does Ford own a controlling interest ? They don't ...
The only way Ford owns a controlling interest is if half (or more) of that 66.6% doesn't vote which neither of us know to be the case ...
The US stock market doesn't work like that due to fragmenation of ownership.
More people vote in presidential elections than on proxy ballots. It's just like how a person can be President of the United States with less than 50% of the popular vote (not including electoral college nonsense)....because some questions are not exactly yes/no questions.
Also, there are also sphere's of influence...as funds that own ford may also own Mazda and they obviously wouldn't vote to oppose Ford.
And here's more:
In practice, though, controlling interest can be far less than that, as it is rare that 100% of a company's voting shareholders actively vote.
In addition, a company that requires a 2/3 super-majority of shares to vote in favor of a motion, can grant, in effect, veto power to a minority shareholder or block of shareholders that own essentially 1/3 of the shares. Thus in some cases, a single entity can essentially maintain control, with only 33.4% of the outstanding shares. Ford Motor Company's ownership of 33.4% of Mazda is an example of a controlling interest with minority shareholding.
You can actually determine proxy voting data if you are a shareholder or you pay for it. I neither own shares, nor am willing to pay....