Hey guys! New to the forum. I've looked all over for the answer to this so I apologize if this is a noob question, but I keep getting conflicting answers.
I have an 2-channel amplifier that is capable of bridging both channels into 1 single channel. I am using speaker level inputs on the amp and I am curious if both input channels need to have the same signal going into the amp?
My car has a stock digital signal processor that splits the signals between two channels that will be used as inputs on the external amplifier. Basically, channel 1 contains all the high frequency sounds and channel 2 contains all the low sounds.
If I bridge the amp, will the amp combine both input channels into 1 channel to contain all the frequencies from both channel 1 and 2?
Thanks for any help!
