using 2 sub amps,

first off you shouldnt chain the amps. Get a power block to distribute the power wire to each amp individually. Then get separate wires for each amp and ground them - the same ground spot is fine. And for the second question, yea it will be at 1 ohm. Each amp will put out 1000 watts so a total of 2000 @ 1 ohm. The sub configuration also varies this tho.

 
yes they would both get their own power and ground but how would i wire them together to put out 2000 @ 1 ohm? I know the cable that runs between the two amps, I mean speaker wire wise.

 
yes they would both get their own power and ground but how would i wire them together to put out 2000 @ 1 ohm? I know the cable that runs between the two amps, I mean speaker wire wise.
Are you planning on wiring both amps to one sub?? If so bad idea, if you wanted to send 2000 watts rms to a sub you could wire one amp to one voice coil if you have dvc subs. But im not sure what your trying to do. //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/rolleyes.gif.c1fef805e9d1464d377451cd5bc18bfb.gif

 
I have a similar question, I made a wire diagram:

I need to know if there will be a difference in the ohms resistance for say if I had 1 amp bridged to 4 ohms connects to two subs in a paralle connection, each one is DVC, and the voice coils wire in a series. So...each sub is at 8ohms, all wired together paralle, to 2 bridged amps at 4ohms...just want to know if I have the resitance to the amps correct...

The amps are 2-channel amps that are bridged

5.jpg


Can you see the pic ^?

 
I take it the subs are dvc 4ohm subs. If you wire them in series to make 1 sub into a 8ohm load and do the same as the other and then wire both in parrallel to make a 4ohm load and than bridge it to your amp. Id suggest doing it that way instead of chaining the amps together to power all the subs. Id suggest just wiring 2 of your subs to 1 amp. Just my 2 cents. //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/wink.gif.608e3ea05f1a9f98611af0861652f8fb.gif

 
I would but I only got 1 terminal cup for the box -.-...arg. But maybe if I use a higher gauge wire, I'm not sure what the difference would be? And chaining the amps together would send the same signals to all the subwoofers. What are the advantages to wireing the subs in the fashion you described?

 
I have a similar question, I made a wire diagram:I need to know if there will be a difference in the ohms resistance for say if I had 1 amp bridged to 4 ohms connects to two subs in a paralle connection, each one is DVC, and the voice coils wire in a series. So...each sub is at 8ohms, all wired together paralle, to 2 bridged amps at 4ohms...just want to know if I have the resitance to the amps correct...

The amps are 2-channel amps that are bridged

5.jpg


Can you see the pic ^?
Wire 2 subs to each amp. Dont combine the speaker wires.

For original poster:

I believe you are reffering to "strapping" amps together. Not all amps can do it, they have to have special circuitry were one will be the "master" and the other the "slave" so that their gains would be set totally equal etc...

And assuming those amps are strappable, it would be 2000watts @ 2ohm since they will each "see" half the final load.

 
I would but I only got 1 terminal cup for the box -.-...arg. But maybe if I use a higher gauge wire, I'm not sure what the difference would be? And chaining the amps together would send the same signals to all the subwoofers. What are the advantages to wireing the subs in the fashion you described?
Get another, can get them anywhere, a car audio/home audio shop, radio shack pretty much anywhere. //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/biggrin.gif.d71a5d36fcbab170f2364c9f2e3946cb.gif

 
Got money I will do anything for you, got money just tell me what you want me to...
But this is what I don't understand, the problem with wiring the amps together, not that I disagree, but what is the problem?
Unless your amps are strappable where 1 is the master and 1 is the slave. It would be hard to do. It would be very difficult to exactly match 1 amp to the other. I have tried that like 7 years ago with 2 MTX Thunder 280 amps and they wouldnt work together. I think one competes with the other. Not really sure the technical aspect of it. Someone else may know. I just know from past experience.

 
What is the difference, just out of curiosity?
Two waveforms travelling through a wire wont magically make one bigger waveform. Strapping amps is more complicated than that. Strapping is basically like bridging a 2-channel amp. You take 2 channels and combine them into one, but technically, you arent just "combining" them. One channel handles the postive (top half) of the wave and the other handles the negative "bottom half" of the wave. To do this, the channels have to be identical 180 degree opposites of eachother. Thats why headunits arent bridgable, they dont have the circuitry that does that. This is also why when you bridge a 2-channel amp, it specifically tells you exactly which terminals to use to bridge, they are the ones that have 180 degree phase shifts of eachother. It is also VERY important that the gains be set totally equal in both channels. The master/slave attributes of strappable amps take care of this need, and in 2-channel amps you only have 1 gain anyways. Setting gains by hand to get them equal is not an option, one half of the signal would inevitably be larger than the other. Kinda confusing stuff I know, but put simply, you cant strap any old amps without the phases beign inverted and equal gains.

 
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