Different Amplifier Qualities? Same actual RMS power but different sound?

[amartin_72]

Yes the gains were set correctly, we didnt use a voltmeter or anything although alot of times I do use that method. And i know what clipping sounds like i cant stand any minute amount of it. Perhaps it was also just the parametric EQ on the JL that peaked out the box more ? idk

 

[tRiGgEr 5,000+ posts]

Yes the gains were set correctly, we didnt use a voltmeter or anything

If you did not use a DMM or Oscope they were not properly set.

 

[Ctesibius 10+ year member]

Posted by werewolf.

//content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/hilarious.gif.02a037aad04aa96f19982b298a3d70a8.gif

No shit sherlock. I never said anything to the contrary.

Read that thread, understand and comprehend the implications of RC's test and what it shows/attempts to prove/disprove, and re-read everything I typed here.

You are severly lacking in reading comprehension, apparently //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/laugh.gif.48439b2acf2cfca21620f01e7f77d1e4.gif

NO WHERE did I say a watt is a watt. NO WHERE did I say it was a physical impossiblity for two amps to sound different.

Go back and fully reread that entire thread, not just the first post. And then attempt, with your meager mind, to understand and comprehend both the RC challenge and what I've typed here //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/laugh.gif.48439b2acf2cfca21620f01e7f77d1e4.gif

 

[amartin_72]

Ok i guess the gains werent set with the most professional method available. People can set the gains without a DMM and an O-scope. Im saying when the LPF were both set the same and the gain was turned up until distortion, the 500/1 killed the Kenwood. This was at 1-ohm which the JL supposedly wasnt even stable at but it never even got warm and the kenwood did.

 

[Ctesibius 10+ year member]

Ok i guess the gains werent set with the most professional method available.

When trying to make valid comparisons, exact settings are absolutely crucial. Otherwise you aren't comparing the amplifiers, but the setup.

 

[tRiGgEr 5,000+ posts]

No. If the subwoofer is receiving the same voltage and current at it's terminals (the same power), it is going to respond exactly the same no matter what the source.

??? Maybe you're the one who did not understand my post. Or yours for that matter.

You claim if a driver is receiving the same amount of power from any different source. Then the response would be identical. There would be no audible difference between the sources. This is false.

Do you know Audioholic on this forum? You might be his long lost love child //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/laugh.gif.48439b2acf2cfca21620f01e7f77d1e4.gif

 

[Ctesibius 10+ year member]

You claim if a driver is receiving the same amount of power from any different source. Then the response would be identical. There would be no audible difference between the sources. This is false.

//content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/laugh.gif.48439b2acf2cfca21620f01e7f77d1e4.gif

Yet you completely skipped over the first part....if the subwoofer is receiveing the same voltage and current at it's terminals (i.e. IDENTICAL SIGNALS), then the speaker will respond exactly the same regardless of the source.

I would have assumed any intelligent reader would have understood such a concept //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/laugh.gif.48439b2acf2cfca21620f01e7f77d1e4.gif Obviously you do not fall under such bracket.

 

[tRiGgEr 5,000+ posts]

Keep attacking my intelligence. Your IQ must be higher than mine. Want to take a test:laugh: idiot.

 

[Ctesibius 10+ year member]

Keep attacking my intelligence. Your IQ must be higher than mine. Want to take a test:laugh: idiot.

Has nothing to due with pure intelligence.

Just your lack of knowledge and general misunderstanding of the topic at hand //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/wink.gif.608e3ea05f1a9f98611af0861652f8fb.gif

 

[tRiGgEr 5,000+ posts]

Has nothing to due with pure intelligence.

Just your lack of knowledge and general misunderstanding of the topic at hand //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/wink.gif.608e3ea05f1a9f98611af0861652f8fb.gif

But you're wrong, I'm right:

 

[Ctesibius 10+ year member]

But you're wrong, I'm right:

Atleast Macgyver agrees with me //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/moon.gif.9d317aec3339ffe7fde0638df52c628a.gif

(see, I do have a [very poor and dry] sense of humor)

 

[tRiGgEr 5,000+ posts]

Atleast Macgyver agrees with me //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/moon.gif.9d317aec3339ffe7fde0638df52c628a.gif

But he's rockin my ava so GTFO.

 

[-Sin- 10+ year member]

//content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/popcorn.gif.32dd9e22fd77e77bc3c907062768fcd2.gif better than wrestling:crazy:

 

[sundownz Pro Seller]

Class-D amps can be particularly sensitive to poor design. Poor semiconductor and layout choices can lead to a deformed waveform. You can, in fact, have two amps with identical power output that sound vastly different.

Check out this bit of information from IRF:

http://www.sundownaudio.com/misc/IRF.jpg

 

[Ctesibius 10+ year member]

You can, in fact, have two amps with identical power output that sound vastly different.

Only if there is an [audible] difference in distortion/noise or frequency response (and a difference in frequency response is easily "fixed" with an EQ). And most any amplifier produced today will have low (inaudible) amounts of THD+N, especially in a subbass application where distortion is harder to identify.