UndercoverPunk
5,000+ posts
DOT
WORD.Fair enough; you no-flys have pushed me to the limit.
Since you obviously aren't getting away from the bully tactic, I will run the math for you just so you will shut up. Take a basic Boeing 737-400, which has an empty mass of 33,200 kg, or 325,360 newtons of weight. The maximum thrust output of a 737-400 is 22,000 foot-pounds, or 97,861 newtons. These are important numbers; keep them in mind.
Now, the problem at hand is NOT an issue of velocities; it's an issue of FORCES. If there is a net force acting on an object, it will move; I'm sure we both can agree on that. Thus, it is necessary to determine all the forces acting on an airplane's motion. This is fairly simple to determine; you have thrust acting on the plane in the forward direction, rolling friction acting on the plane in the opposite direction, and the plane's weight acting in the downward direction.
Now that we've agreed on the forces acting on the plane, let's do some calculations. We already know the maximum thrust of the plane is 97,861 newtons, and that the plane's empty weight is 325,360 newtons. In order to calculate rolling friction, one must take the normal force of the plane multiplied by the coefficient of rolling friction in the landing gear wheels. This calculation is VITAL; NOTE how rotational velocity has NO BEARING on the rolling friction experienced in the wheels.
Now, since the airplane is parallel to the ground, the normal force is simply equal to the weight of the plane. After doing a quick Google search, I've obtained a value of 0.02 for the coefficient of rolling friction. Thus, the frictional force opposing the plane's forward motion is (325,360 newtons)*(0.02) is equal to 6507.2 newtons.
We now have values for all the forces acting on the plane. Since frictional force opposes forward thrust, we can determine the net force acting on the plane by subtracting the frictional force from the forward thrust of the plane, which turns out to be 91,354 newtons acting in the forward direction, which quite obviously means that the plane will move FORWARD.
The only way the conveyor belt acts on the airplane is by spinning its wheels faster. Since we've already established that rolling friction calculations are NOT dependent on the speed of rotation, the speed of the conveyor belt is a non-issue in this problem. The thrust of the plane easily overcomes the rolling friction in the wheels, thus allowing the plane to take off.
You satisfied now, or are you going to claim the laws of physics are incorrect now?
