Diffrence between Cx62's & Cx64's

[the_noob 10+ year member]

shouldent notice a diffrence? If they are getting 100 watts or 200 watts isent that a 3 db diffrence or does that rule not apply to 6"s. I dunno im just asking not saying ur wrong

If the efficiency on the 2ohm driver equaled the efficiency on the 4ohm driver, then you would be correct. Despite the fact that they are each rated at 91dB's, you have to consider that they are both (most likely) rated at 2.83v's. Now, I'm no squeak or jmac, but basically, 2.83v's will equal 1 watt at 8ohm's. When the impedance is lowered to, say, 4 or 2ohm's, more power is seen. That is the same reason why an amp that will produce 100 watts at 4ohm's will produce 200 watts at 2ohm's. So, they are both rated at 91db's, but that is because at 2.83v the 2ohm driver received twice as much power, and that is where that 3db gain in output comes from. So, once again assuming that both drivers were rated at 2.83v, the actual efficiency of the 4ohm driver would be 88db's and the actual efficiency of the 2ohm driver would be 86db's. Of course, because of the lower impedance, it will receive twice as much power as the 4ohm driver, and, therefore, there should be no difference in ouput.

I hope I explained that correctly.

 

[twoohfour 10+ year member]

If the efficiency on the 2ohm driver equaled the efficiency on the 4ohm driver, then you would be correct. Despite the fact that they are each rated at 91dB's, you have to consider that they are both (most likely) rated at 2.83v's. Now, I'm no squeak or jmac, but basically, 2.83v's will equal 1 watt at 8ohm's. When the impedance is lowered to, say, 4 or 2ohm's, more power is seen. That is the same reason why an amp that will produce 100 watts at 4ohm's will produce 200 watts at 2ohm's. So, they are both rated at 91db's, but that is because at 2.83v the 2ohm driver received twice as much power, and that is where that 3db gain in output comes from. So, once again assuming that both drivers were rated at 2.83v, the actual efficiency of the 4ohm driver would be 88db's and the actual efficiency of the 2ohm driver would be 86db's. Of course, because of the lower impedance, it will receive twice as much power as the 4ohm driver, and, therefore, there should be no difference in ouput.
I hope I explained that correctly.

not entirely sure you did, but i know less than you do for sure so it might as well be right //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/wink.gif.608e3ea05f1a9f98611af0861652f8fb.gif

dylan would know the answer...

 

[squeak9798 5,000+ posts]

According to the webpage, they are measured 1w/1m rather than 2.83V/1m.

But you are correct; 2.83V on an 8ohm speaker is 1w, on a 4ohm speaker is 2w and on a 2ohm speaker is 4w. Which would mean if they were rated at 2.83V you would need to subtract 3db from the 4ohm speaker's rated sensitivity and 6db from the 2ohm speaker's rated sensivity.

But since they were supposedly measured at 1w rather than 2.83V, this would not stay true. The rated sensitivity should be accurate as-is.

 

[mega1268 10+ year member]

but they are both 93? not 88 and 85

 

[twoohfour 10+ year member]

On this same topic, i recently picked up a pair of CX62s (just the mids)... can they take 225w @ 2 ohms per side?

 

[mega1268 10+ year member]

since they are only rated at 150... id say yea lol just becareful //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/thumbsup.gif.3287b36ca96645a13a43aff531f37f02.gif

 

[twoohfour 10+ year member]

i know someone here has to have experience