Amp Gain Questions

On this note, does anyone know what the supposed clipping voltage should be for the Rockford R1200? It is not listed in the manual (Like JL's amps I know of for sure) as its a shared manual for all Prime Series amps. I am contacting their support to find out, but I figured I would ask here too since they might take a while. I need to know so I can set it myself with a DMM and save me the trouble of having to go back to the audio store.

 
On this note, does anyone know what the supposed clipping voltage should be for the Rockford R1200? It is not listed in the manual (Like JL's amps I know of for sure) as its a shared manual for all Prime Series amps. I am contacting their support to find out, but I figured I would ask here too since they might take a while. I need to know so I can set it myself with a DMM and save me the trouble of having to go back to the audio store.
It's not going to be the same for all amps, the DD1 is really the only way to do it without an oscope

 
Yes but it should have an approximated value correct? I planned on reaching the approximated value and then backing off just a bit. Testing her out and if she's good, loud, and clean then great. I figure that will get me real close for the time being, then when I upgrade to the Rockford P3s and run a 1 Ohm load I'll rehook it to the DD1 since I'll be back at the car shop for help with building a box.

 
Yes but it should have an approximated value correct? I planned on reaching the approximated value and then backing off just a bit. Testing her out and if she's good, loud, and clean then great. I figure that will get me real close for the time being, then when I upgrade to the Rockford P3s and run a 1 Ohm load I'll rehook it to the DD1 since I'll be back at the car shop for help with building a box.
Maybe, they might not even know. I've never heard of companies publishing information like that

 
Well according to them to determine thewattage output of the amp you take the voltage * voltage to represent both outputs theb divide by the resistance that the amp sees. So by that logic (28*28)/2 means 396W rms per speaker output. It should be capable of roughhly 415 Into each output. So by that logic 28-29 volts should be clipping right?

EDIT: Yea my RMS power rating came in at 1264W @ 1 Ohm. So at 2 Ohm that goes to 834W, divided by 2 to represent output to Speaker A and Speaker B you get 417W. So 29.00V pushes 420W per channel and 28.00V pushes 396. So 28.5 Should allow me to run it to 99% of its potential w/o clipping. Or am I completely Bass ackwards on this?

 
Well according to them to determine thewattage output of the amp you take the voltage * voltage to represent both outputs theb divide by the resistance that the amp sees. So by that logic (28*28)/2 means 396W rms per speaker output. It should be capable of roughhly 415 Into each output. So by that logic 28-29 volts should be clipping right?
EDIT: Yea my RMS power rating came in at 1264W @ 1 Ohm. So at 2 Ohm that goes to 834W, divided by 2 to represent output to Speaker A and Speaker B you get 417W. So 29.00V pushes 420W per channel and 28.00V pushes 396. So 28.5 Should allow me to run it to 99% of its potential w/o clipping. Or am I completely Bass ackwards on this?
What volume tone are you going to be using to set you gains? This forum like to make gain setting rocket science but it's really not that difficult. Gain matching is really to match output of the speakers, not wattage and input levels. I dont want to argue on here with anyone over it to derail the thread, but if you insist on using tones and a DMM to set your gains if you want 99% of it's potential you WILL have to have clipping. If you want no clipping use a 0db tone and set your gains to arond the 28 volt mark to be safe. At that point the amp will have no way to clip. This is how car audio companies have recommended as the "pro" way to set gains. After all, if your amp only puts out 25% of it's power on average, what do you think happens to costly equipment returns on amps and speakers?

Just realize with an amp set using 0 db tones for NO clipping, usually puts out 1/4 to 1/2 of it's rated power on most songs most of the time. That's because you've set the amp to only put out it's max clean power when it see's the largest input signal that a source material could contain. That only happens at brief points in most songs, if at all. If you want to get 1/2 to 3/4 of your amp on most songs use a -3db tone although there will be slightht clipping at the loudest point on songs, since any tone louder than -3db will be clipped. Generally I set my gains by ear very lose to a 2:1 gain ratio, which is a -6db tone if you used a dmm for my subs. It produces moderate clipping on hard peaks, but it's not audible and as long as your not crazy with your volume knob, dangerous in any way.

Anway what db tone have you been using or plan on using. My personal suggestion is start with a -3 tone and turn the bass boost all the way off.

 
Honestly, I just set mine by ear. But I've set my fair share of amps up before. I don't recommend this though.

My reasoning:

1. I'm lazy

2. I have no idea what my amp should put out at 2 ohms, but I know I can't overpower my sub with it

3. There are no decent audio shops around me

4. I don't want to drop however much money it is for a DD1

5. If I did somehow manage to blow my sub I have a spare.

 
So if I use a -3 (no need to use full power since my subs currently cant handle it) and tune it to approximately 28 volts at 35 volume (the max I like to go when pounding) I will get minor clipping at times but not enough to harm the speaker? And never ever use bassboost?

Edit: I would just do it by ear but I'm still borrowing these subs and want to squeeze evrry little db I can out of them.

 
So if I use a -3 (no need to use full power since my subs currently cant handle it) and tune it to approximately 28 volts at 35 volume (the max I like to go when pounding) I will get minor clipping at times but not enough to harm the speaker? And never ever use bassboost?
Go at the max volume you can before clipping, I believe you said 40/50

 
I used a 40hz 0db tone since I put out the most power with that tone. I tuned it to a hair under 28V. However I noticed that wheni plugged my remote bass in the voltage dropped to 21 even though itwas maxed (I was curious). So I have my remote bass at max and my bass boost on the amp boosted ever so slightly to get it back to 28V without changing the gain. It sounds just as clean as it did without it. Basically if I unplug my remote bass and turn the bass boost back to none IIstill output 28V. Kinda weird, but I've got it soundinggood and as far as I can tell its not clipping and shouldn't clip.

 
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I used a 40hz 0db tone since I put out the most power with that tone. I tuned it to a hair under 28V. However I noticed that wheni plugged my remote bass in the voltage dropped to 21 even though itwas maxed (I was curious). So I have my remote bass at max and my bass boost on the amp boosted ever so slightly to get it back to 28V without changing the gain. It sounds just as clean as it did without it. Basically if I unplug my remote bass and turn the bass boost back to none IIstill output 28V. Kinda weird, but I've got it soundinggood and as far as I can tell its not clipping and shouldn't clip.
The bass boost your using is JUST boosting voltage around 40hz. Turn the bass boost off and plug in your remote gain knob. If for some reason having it plugged in is dropping your voltage output, kick the gain up to compensate. Right now your not clipping anywhere, but your only getting anything ballparking 28volts on music at 40hz on the loudest peaks.

 
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