Ceezer
10+ year member
Member
Will a 4-channel amp put out a signal on all 4 channels if there's only 1 signal coming in?
To elaborate, I'm currently running my front doors on 2 channels in stereo, and a pair of 10s in parallel bridged mono on the other 2 channels. The 2 channels powering the fronts are on 1 set of RCAs and the subs are on another. If I unhook the door speakers to run off another amp (which would mean unplugging that set of RCAs), would the single pair of RCAs that send the sub signal then disperse the output signal across all channels if I split the subs up (bridge one mono across the 2 channels they're currently hooked up to, and the other mono across the other two channels that were used by the doors)?
I hope I'm not confusing the situation. Bridging this way would make it, essentially, a 2-channel amp. Right? Would each of these channels need an RCA input to receive an output signal, or would 1 set suffice?
To elaborate, I'm currently running my front doors on 2 channels in stereo, and a pair of 10s in parallel bridged mono on the other 2 channels. The 2 channels powering the fronts are on 1 set of RCAs and the subs are on another. If I unhook the door speakers to run off another amp (which would mean unplugging that set of RCAs), would the single pair of RCAs that send the sub signal then disperse the output signal across all channels if I split the subs up (bridge one mono across the 2 channels they're currently hooked up to, and the other mono across the other two channels that were used by the doors)?
I hope I'm not confusing the situation. Bridging this way would make it, essentially, a 2-channel amp. Right? Would each of these channels need an RCA input to receive an output signal, or would 1 set suffice?