B blimblam 10+ year member CarAudio.com Elite 1,603 0 new orleans Apr 1, 2009 #1 how do you wire 2 single 2 ohm subs to a ohm load. Click to read more...
OP B blimblam 10+ year member CarAudio.com Elite 1,603 0 new orleans Apr 1, 2009 Thread Starter #3 woops my fault. 1 ohm. itd be the same as 1 dvc 2 ohm sub right?
E EuphoricBass247 10+ year member Senior VIP Member 314 2 West Palms,FL Apr 1, 2009 #5 +to +/ - to - will give you a 1 ohm load at the amp
OP B blimblam 10+ year member CarAudio.com Elite 1,603 0 new orleans Apr 1, 2009 Thread Starter #6 yeah. thanks. thats what i thought, trying to make sure =]
SYLrules 10+ year member PERMANENT VACATION 47 2 EAST TEXAS Apr 2, 2009 #8 does it matter whether you do it like figure A or figure B? still same impedance?
tommyk90 5,000+ posts THE WHOLE THING!!! 16,870 76 Chicago Heights, IL Apr 2, 2009 #9 Either way will be fine.