Boomin_tahoe 5,000+ posts
Hurtin' feelings errrday.
There might be a few or some in your neck of the woods.What area are the shows y’all are talking about?
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There might be a few or some in your neck of the woods.What area are the shows y’all are talking about?
Sent from my iPad using Tapatalk
I did some research to settle this question.Ok.... Lower frequency bass notes tend to have a longer wave length.
So it causes the amp to pull power for a longer period of time.
A bit better for you hispls?
Your egotistic need for everything to be to the utmost perfection to even be considered correct is annoying at times.
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good job on hte research. I can't get these tards to do any research.I did some research to settle this question.
Energy and power of a signal.
If you look at the third equation he has for the power of a signal, it is easy to see that the power of a sine wave does not depend on its frequency if T is a fundamental period.
This is because the fundamental period T of sin(Kx) is 2 pi / K, and the integral from 0 to T of sin^2(Kx) equals pi/K. Multiply this by 1/T and you get 1/2. Since this doesn't depend on K, the power consumption of two sine waves of differing frequencies is the same.
If T is allowed to be any unit of time, the powers may differ. The power integral works out to be:
1/2 - sin(2kT)/4kT.
If T is very large, then the power of two different sine waves approaches the same value.
I made some edits to improve clarity. I don't think I need to include the comparison when T is a fundamental period because it's kind of confusing. Glad you appreciate the research!good job on hte research. I can't get these tards to do any research.
time should be you're constant for any measurement of energy.I made some edits to improve clarity. I don't think I need to include the comparison when T is a fundamental period because it's kind of confusing. Glad you appreciate the research!
Can you guarantee the difference in amplitude in signals is the same for a sub playing a 20 Hz and a sub playing 40 Hz? That's one potential logical fallacy when trying to discuss this topic.I did some research to settle this question.
Energy and power of a signal.
If T is allowed to be any unit of time, the powers may differ. The power integral works out to be:
1/2 - sin(2kT)/4kT.
If T is very large, then the power of two different sine waves approaches the same value. If time has units of seconds, then even after 1 second the power of a roughly 32 hertz sine wave minus the power of a roughly 60 hertz sine wave is not more than 1/40. Since both powers are close to 1/2, the powers are already pretty close even after a second. (In other words both waves have a power which is about 20 times larger than the difference between their powers).
Note: Power here is in units of Watts, and as long as the amplitudes of the two waves are the same, the results of these calculations doesn't change *much*. I assumed the amplitude was 1 for simplicity. If the amplitude is A, then the power becomes A^2 times the above function: A^2 [ 1/2-sin(2kT)/4kT ]. So the ratio of the difference of the waves' powers to their actual power would still be 1/20 after 1 second.
It depends on a lot of things out of my control. If we pretend that the output voltage from the head unit for a ~30 hz and ~60 hz signal are about the same, then yes I think so. I'm not a sound engineer, I just do math.Can you guarantee the difference in amplitude in signals is the same for a sub playing a 20 Hz and a sub playing 40 Hz? That's one potential logical fallacy when trying to discuss this topic.
You're dealing with an electro-mechanically coupled system at low frequencies (read: A convoluted tangle of dynamic magnetic fields and current, induced and applied) Assuming for a second we are only discussing the comparison of acoustic energy between two discrete frequencies in one simple setup, I still don't think it's quite that easy to make a definitive claim.
It was a good a pedagogical exercise at the very least.
I just do Physics. I'm not knocking your post, but you did not settle the question. Though you did provide some good information for people who might be interested in one technical aspect of the question at hand.//content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/thumbsup.gif.3287b36ca96645a13a43aff531f37f02.gif Just remember to look at the big picture. //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/toast.gif.bc0657bf54b9ee653b6438524461341e.gifIt depends on a lot of things out of my control. If we pretend that the output voltage from the head unit for a ~30 hz and ~60 hz signal are about the same, then yes I think so. I'm not a sound engineer, I just do math.
It depends on a lot of things out of my control. If we pretend that the output voltage from the head unit for a ~30 hz and ~60 hz signal are about the same, then yes I think so. I'm not a sound engineer, I just do math.
The point in my previous post was yes no matter the frequency each sine wave will use same amount of power.I just do Physics. I'm not knocking your post, but you did not settle the question. Though you did provide some good information for people who might be interested in one technical aspect of the question at hand.[emoji106] Just remember to look at the big picture. //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/toast.gif.bc0657bf54b9ee653b6438524461341e.gif
It's very easy to make a definitive claim. You should learn at least the very basics of electricity. 1W of true power at 20hz is the exact same flow of energy as 1W at 40hz or 40 Mhz. If you wish to disprove Joule's Law post the formula to refute it. The only time that power over a period of time makes wavelength relevant is if we are discussing very small units of time (below 1 second if we're talking about 20-100hz) and even then the difference of the longer wave losing a 20th of a cycle isn't going to mean "better buy more batteries" and even then depending where each waveform starts and stops the flow of energy could still be identical.Can you guarantee the difference in amplitude in signals is the same for a sub playing a 20 Hz and a sub playing 40 Hz? That's one potential logical fallacy when trying to discuss this topic.
You're dealing with an electro-mechanically coupled system at low frequencies (read: A convoluted tangle of dynamic magnetic fields and current, induced and applied) Assuming for a second we are only discussing the comparison of acoustic energy between two discrete frequencies in one simple setup, I still don't think it's quite that easy to make a definitive claim.
It was a good a pedagogical exercise at the very least.
You specifically said that lower frequencies draw more power because they have longer wavelengths. If you're trying to say something else then or now you're doing a terrible job of explaining it.The point in my previous post was yes no matter the frequency each sine wave will use same amount of power.
I see what you're saying, but it's outside the scope of the question I was trying to answer. If you have two sine waves whose only difference is the frequency, and not the amplitude, then their powers are about the same after a few seconds. But yes you are right, if the amplitudes are different then you can forget everything I posted earlier //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/biggrin.gif.d71a5d36fcbab170f2364c9f2e3946cb.gifI just do Physics. I'm not knocking your post, but you did not settle the question. Though you did provide some good information for people who might be interested in one technical aspect of the question at hand.//content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/thumbsup.gif.3287b36ca96645a13a43aff531f37f02.gif Just remember to look at the big picture. //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/toast.gif.bc0657bf54b9ee653b6438524461341e.gif
Music will definitely change things (to the point where my previous post just goes out the window completely). I feel like there's good odds that bass heavy techno or rap just plays a pure bass note of whatever frequency, though. So it might be close, but I dunno.The point in my previous post was yes no matter the frequency each sine wave will use same amount of power.
But music is not a sine wave, but the music people use for car audio and hair tricks so to say have certain notes that can be considered a mini sine wave or a longer wave length.
wtf are you talking about?The point in my previous post was yes no matter the frequency each sine wave will use same amount of power.
But music is not a sine wave, but the music people use for car audio and hair tricks so to say have certain notes that can be considered a mini sine wave or a longer wave length.
If you have those types of waves thru out the song you will deplete your power supply faster then what the actual power source can supply.
Not to forget most have two amps or more.
Your math is correct yes, but simple math cannot be used as the actual function in the equation changes as new elements are added.
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out of context. we are talking about acoustic energy.....I just do Physics. I'm not knocking your post, but you did not settle the question. Though you did provide some good information for people who might be interested in one technical aspect of the question at hand.//content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/thumbsup.gif.3287b36ca96645a13a43aff531f37f02.gif Just remember to look at the big picture. //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/toast.gif.bc0657bf54b9ee653b6438524461341e.gif
I really respect your thoughts and opinions on a lot of things, but to think you can model the dynamics using only joules law to evenly compare playing different notes is naive at best. Perhaps instead of being snarky you should learn the very basics of constructing a Physics based model instead of falling back to a gross oversimplification and not to mention a complete miss to the argument I presented? Correct me if I'm wrong this argument started out from someone different notes required more or less power, and my posts have been an attempt at pushing the discussion towards why one could see differences in the electrical draw of the amp between different notes?It's very easy to make a definitive claim. You should learn at least the very basics of electricity. 1W of true power at 20hz is the exact same flow of energy as 1W at 40hz or 40 Mhz. If you wish to disprove Joule's Law post the formula to refute it. The only time that power over a period of time makes wavelength relevant is if we are discussing very small units of time (below 1 second if we're talking about 20-100hz) and even then the difference of the longer wave losing a 20th of a cycle isn't going to mean "better buy more batteries" and even then depending where each waveform starts and stops the flow of energy could still be identical.
How's the big picture out of context?//content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/confused.gif.e820e0216602db4765798ac39d28caa9.gif Acoustic energy is way different than energy contained in the input electrical signal, and they are both different than the energy requirements needed to recreate a dynamic or sinusoidal signal using a subwoofer. You all need to get your energy and power ducks in a row.//content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/toast.gif.bc0657bf54b9ee653b6438524461341e.gifout of context. we are talking about acoustic energy.....