Bridging, impedance question

EDL

Junior Member
I have a set of Infinity Kappa 60.7CS components and tweeters I purchased from my wife's nephew ($75 and they're mint).

These are 2 ohm speakers, so I have a question about running them on a bridged amp.

If I bridge the rear 2 channels on a 4-channel amp to run a sub, won't all the channels run at 4 ohm impedance, meaning I can't run the Infinity's on the front 2 channels?

 
what amp is it?

if each channel is 1 ohm stable, you can bridge it and get a 2ohm load,

now if it is like every normal 4 channel, they can only seek a 2 ohm load per channel, meaning when you bridge them its a minimum of 4 ohm load.

you could hook wire the speakers together to get a 4ohm load and bridge the amp.. but theyll get the same power as wiring each speaker to each channel, which is reccomended.

 
I don't have an amp yet. I have a Dodge Ram quadcab pickup. I want to run the Infinity's in the front and a single sub under the rear passenger seat. Space is very limited, so running a mono block for the sub and another amp for the speakers probably isn't going to fit. I can't put an amp under the front seats (power seats), no room. The idea is a sealed box under the rear passenger seat for the sub and an amp under the driver side rear seat.

I was thinking a 4-channel amp, run the Infinity's off two channels and bridge the rear two for the sub. Rear speakers in the doors to run off the HU, just for fill.

So, if I understand correctly, bridging the rear 2 channels will run them at 4 ohm, but the front 2 can still run at 2 ohm?

Also, in this config, I need either a 4 ohm single voice coil, or a 2 ohm dual voice coil sub so it presents a 4 ohm load when wired up?

 
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EDL

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