Audio4ever 10+ year member Box Chevy Boi 2,114 1 Maryland Apr 27, 2011 #1 is there a output diff in usin 0db,-3db etc...?? Click to read more...
bubbagumper6 5,000+ posts CarAudio.com Veteran 11,443 351 The D Apr 27, 2011 #2 Yeah, I'd estimate it at around 3db //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/fyi.gif.9f1f679348da7204ce960cfc74bca8e0.gif 1
Yeah, I'd estimate it at around 3db //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/fyi.gif.9f1f679348da7204ce960cfc74bca8e0.gif
wickedwitt 10+ year member Junior Member 3,091 37 Tahoka TX Apr 27, 2011 #3 First reply is 100% accurate and the only answer you'll need
OP Audio4ever 10+ year member Box Chevy Boi 2,114 1 Maryland Apr 27, 2011 Thread Starter #4 i was askin was there a output diff as in 1 be louder than the other after its done bein set
whitedragon551 5,000+ posts Moderator 14,191 399 IL Apr 27, 2011 #5 i was askin was there a output diff as in 1 be louder than the other after its done bein set Click to expand... Yes. A good percentage of music will never hit a -3db test tone at 50Hz and 99.9% of music never hits a 0db 50Hz test tone. I use a 0db test tone to reduce my chances of clipping even more of the -3db test tone.
i was askin was there a output diff as in 1 be louder than the other after its done bein set Click to expand... Yes. A good percentage of music will never hit a -3db test tone at 50Hz and 99.9% of music never hits a 0db 50Hz test tone. I use a 0db test tone to reduce my chances of clipping even more of the -3db test tone.