Recent content by dave sz

I'm sure that's what everyone would say. Then you would start looking at the goods and productions costs here in the USA and then overseas, you'd see monetary differences between them and you'd be saying **** the USA, I'm gonna be rich!!!

? You typed it all in CAPS, so yeah u did it on purpose. All caps or first letter of every word in caps, both annoying...

He typed it all in CAPS so it leaves the firs letter of every word CAP'd...

hahaha, CUBS cap up front, nice....

Thanks for all the help, you guys are great. Anyway, it was a blown speaker. The cone didn't even move unless you pushed down on it. Like it got detached from the voice coil or something...

Ok, so I did the gains by ear and I had to back them down a bit from the calcualted voltages. Now, I wanna run the amp in 3ch mode. I wanna run the rear midbass as 1ch. Will there be benefits by doing that? Will they still be running at 4ohm or at 2ohm?

So, it's a 70RMSx4@4ohms, meaning the voltage coming out of the amp when setting up the gains should be below 16.74v, right? Well, when I do that, the rear speakers, Kicker ssmb6 6.5" free air midbass speakers, get kind of distorted. The fronts are fine but the tweeters are a bit unclear, MB...

thanks for helping the newb guys...

nevermind. Got the answer in another thread. In case someone asks again. Yes, you need to do the gain adjusting procedure even if the amp puts out less power than the speakers can handle...

This was already asked but I didn't see anyone answer it. I have a 70RMSx4 @4ohm power acoustik amp that will power a set of components and a set of rear fills. I calculated the voltage to be around 16.5v. However, the speakers it will be powering, are all rated at 120rms. My question is, since...