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why that was nice
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<blockquote data-quote="faulkton" data-source="post: 3639281" data-attributes="member: 561910"><p>When there is a question about the meaning of such Constitutional terms, the most sensible and honest way to resolve it is to look at the way that the terms have been used in the Constitutional tradition. For example: does Congress have the power of subpoena? The Constitution doesn't say so. But the colonial legislatures, the state legislatures, and Congress itself from the very beginning all exercised that power. It is reasonable to assume that it is implicit in the Constitution.</p><p></p><p></p><p>This regulation, written when Madison and Jefferson were still alive, makes it clear that the right to bear arms was a right possessed by individuals, and that it is active for self-defense as well as for service in a militia. Kentucky has a similar provision from 1799:</p><p></p><p></p><p>Seems quite clear to me.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="faulkton, post: 3639281, member: 561910"] When there is a question about the meaning of such Constitutional terms, the most sensible and honest way to resolve it is to look at the way that the terms have been used in the Constitutional tradition. For example: does Congress have the power of subpoena? The Constitution doesn't say so. But the colonial legislatures, the state legislatures, and Congress itself from the very beginning all exercised that power. It is reasonable to assume that it is implicit in the Constitution. This regulation, written when Madison and Jefferson were still alive, makes it clear that the right to bear arms was a right possessed by individuals, and that it is active for self-defense as well as for service in a militia. Kentucky has a similar provision from 1799: Seems quite clear to me. [/QUOTE]
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