Resolve this argument (glass breaking)

ya mother****er i know that already. a 1hz tone will not break glass will it? so it must be higher than certain ****ing frequency. someone prove this with facts/numbers/research/knowledge.
If a piece of glass has a resonant frequency of 1 hz it will, but none do, so no. And if you would read what everybody else has said, you would understand why //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/smile.gif.1ebc41e1811405b213edfc4622c41e27.gif

 
what if she spreads her legs and sits on the box port? then again idk if i want vaginal secretions in my subwoofer box //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/uhoh.gif.c07307dd22ee7e63e22fc8e9c614d1fd.gif

 
If you are loud enough you can break any glass with any frequency. If you play a tone that is the resonant frequency of the glass you can break it at much lower volumes since it will naturally vibrate more at that frequency.

It's impossible to break, or even move anything with a 0Hz tone because it would mean your speaker is moving 0 times per second...aka...not moving.

It is possible to break glass with 1Hz, but it would have to be INSANELY loud and displace a TON of air.

 
ya mother****er i know that already. a 1hz tone will not break glass will it? so it must be higher than certain ****ing frequency. someone prove this with facts/numbers/research/knowledge.
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