LiquidClen
10+ year member
The Coolest Kid in School
If a piece of glass has a resonant frequency of 1 hz it will, but none do, so no. And if you would read what everybody else has said, you would understand why //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/smile.gif.1ebc41e1811405b213edfc4622c41e27.gifya mother****er i know that already. a 1hz tone will not break glass will it? so it must be higher than certain ****ing frequency. someone prove this with facts/numbers/research/knowledge.
