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<blockquote data-quote="LongThrow" data-source="post: 8423089" data-attributes="member: 661351"><p>TL;DR = 500w amp - 500 x 2 ohm = 1000, square root of 1000 = 31.62v. I Set my gains accordingly playing a 40hz test tone. Volume 28/35 (I believe this is where i clip) I set the gain to around 2.5-3v which reads 31.62v with my multimeter. Is this correct?</p><p></p><p>So, I'm getting back into trying to upgrade my system, piece my by piece. Currently have two kicker comps (please dont hate on me) 4 ohm, 150 watts to each speaker - wired to a 2 ohm final impendance, obv making it 300w to each speaker.</p><p></p><p>Using a kicker 500.1 at 2 ohms, the benchmark test sheet that came with the amplifier said it can max out 562w under perfect conditions. So i figured 500w would be a good round out.</p><p></p><p>Since I'm lacking about 50w to each speaker, (500w amp divided into two speakers, 250w to each speaker.) I figured the gain may need to be just a itty bitty bit lower than what my equation gave me ;31.62. So i set it to around 29-30v to be sure I'm not clipping. I have bass boost on amp centered 40hz, at about 3db increase, not enough to make the amp clip. Just a small freq boost. Headunit eq set to flat, sub level to max. 500w amp x the 2 ohm final impendance = 1000, square root of 1000 is 31.62v. I set my gains at around 30v, volume at 28/35 which is where I believe right before I clip, playing a 40hz test tone.</p><p></p><p>Is this correct??</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="LongThrow, post: 8423089, member: 661351"] TL;DR = 500w amp - 500 x 2 ohm = 1000, square root of 1000 = 31.62v. I Set my gains accordingly playing a 40hz test tone. Volume 28/35 (I believe this is where i clip) I set the gain to around 2.5-3v which reads 31.62v with my multimeter. Is this correct? So, I'm getting back into trying to upgrade my system, piece my by piece. Currently have two kicker comps (please dont hate on me) 4 ohm, 150 watts to each speaker - wired to a 2 ohm final impendance, obv making it 300w to each speaker. Using a kicker 500.1 at 2 ohms, the benchmark test sheet that came with the amplifier said it can max out 562w under perfect conditions. So i figured 500w would be a good round out. Since I'm lacking about 50w to each speaker, (500w amp divided into two speakers, 250w to each speaker.) I figured the gain may need to be just a itty bitty bit lower than what my equation gave me ;31.62. So i set it to around 29-30v to be sure I'm not clipping. I have bass boost on amp centered 40hz, at about 3db increase, not enough to make the amp clip. Just a small freq boost. Headunit eq set to flat, sub level to max. 500w amp x the 2 ohm final impendance = 1000, square root of 1000 is 31.62v. I set my gains at around 30v, volume at 28/35 which is where I believe right before I clip, playing a 40hz test tone. Is this correct?? [/QUOTE]
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