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which makes more sense?
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<blockquote data-quote="12twelve12" data-source="post: 2515236" data-attributes="member: 573008"><p>i have two 12" subs that are 300w rms each. they are 4 ohm but i have them wired in parallel which would be the equivalent of 2 ohms, correct?</p><p></p><p>ok here is my question. i have found a mono amp that puts out 600w at 2 ohms that would give each speaker 300w.</p><p></p><p>i have also found a 2 channel amp that, when bridged, puts out 600w rms at 4 ohms. what would happen if i connected my paralleled 4ohm speakers to this output? would i have 600w going to each speaker?</p><p></p><p>both amps are rockford fosgate but the 2 channel is cheaper this is why i ask.</p><p></p><p>thanks, and sorry if that made no sense at all.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="12twelve12, post: 2515236, member: 573008"] i have two 12" subs that are 300w rms each. they are 4 ohm but i have them wired in parallel which would be the equivalent of 2 ohms, correct? ok here is my question. i have found a mono amp that puts out 600w at 2 ohms that would give each speaker 300w. i have also found a 2 channel amp that, when bridged, puts out 600w rms at 4 ohms. what would happen if i connected my paralleled 4ohm speakers to this output? would i have 600w going to each speaker? both amps are rockford fosgate but the 2 channel is cheaper this is why i ask. thanks, and sorry if that made no sense at all. [/QUOTE]
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