Menu
Forum
What's new
New posts
Live Activity
Search forums
Members
Registered members
Classifieds Member Feedback
Car Audio Discussion
General Car Audio
Car Audio Build Logs
Car Audio Equipment
Subwoofers
Speakers
Amplifiers
Head Units
Car Audio Help
Wiring, Electrical and Installation
Enclosure Design & Construction
Car Audio Classifieds
Car Audio Classifieds
Car Audio Wanted
Classifieds Member Feedback
Gallery
New media
New comments
Search media
SHOP
Shop Head Units
Shop Amplifiers
Shop Speakers
Shop Subwoofers
Shop eBay Car Audio
Test
Forum
Search
Search titles only
Search titles only
Log in / Join
Search
Search titles only
Search titles only
What's new
New posts
Live Activity
Search forums
Members
Registered members
Classifieds Member Feedback
Menu
Reply to thread
Forum
Car Audio Equipment
Subwoofers
Sub/amp wiring for resistance conundrum...
JavaScript is disabled. For a better experience, please enable JavaScript in your browser before proceeding.
You are using an out of date browser. It may not display this or other websites correctly.
You should upgrade or use an
alternative browser
.
Message
<blockquote data-quote="Dafaseles" data-source="post: 8787973" data-attributes="member: 681482"><p>Here's a question...</p><p>We know an amp running at 4 ohm with the gain set right before the clipping point puts out X amount of watts and is, let's just say hypothetically, it's 90% efficient.</p><p>At 2 ohm, with the gains set the same, it puts out Y amount of watts and, again hypothetically, is 85% efficient.</p><p>Now at 1 ohm, it puts out Z amount of watts and is 80% efficient.</p><p>What if you ran at 1 ohm, but set the gain to put out X amount of watts (what the amplifier puts out at 4 ohm right before clipping). Would that make the amplifier more efficient than at 4 ohm, considering you don't have the gains set so high? Or would it still be the hypothetically 90% efficient? Or would the efficiency be lower than 90% because it's wired to a 1 ohm load? </p><p>This thread made me wonder if that's the case or not.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="Dafaseles, post: 8787973, member: 681482"] Here's a question... We know an amp running at 4 ohm with the gain set right before the clipping point puts out X amount of watts and is, let's just say hypothetically, it's 90% efficient. At 2 ohm, with the gains set the same, it puts out Y amount of watts and, again hypothetically, is 85% efficient. Now at 1 ohm, it puts out Z amount of watts and is 80% efficient. What if you ran at 1 ohm, but set the gain to put out X amount of watts (what the amplifier puts out at 4 ohm right before clipping). Would that make the amplifier more efficient than at 4 ohm, considering you don't have the gains set so high? Or would it still be the hypothetically 90% efficient? Or would the efficiency be lower than 90% because it's wired to a 1 ohm load? This thread made me wonder if that's the case or not. [/QUOTE]
Insert quotes…
Verification
Post reply
Forum
Car Audio Equipment
Subwoofers
Sub/amp wiring for resistance conundrum...
Top
Menu
Home
Refresh