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<blockquote data-quote="DIGIDIGIBOMBO" data-source="post: 1037355" data-attributes="member: 562297"><p>Hi, i would like to know y do we use a 1Khz at 0dB test tone for testing the speakers, and 45Hz at 0dB for the sub. Is it cause the 1Khz is maximum the frequency that will out out me the most power from amp to speakers? same thing for the subs ( 45 Hz)?? when i want to set the HU volume, i use the 1Khz test tone, and i should be disconecting the sub while doing this?</p><p></p><p>i have a 50rms per channel amp, i am bridging it to use a 300 rms sub at 4ohms, so i must have 28.284Volts at a test tone of 45Hz? and 2 speakers 40rms each and 4 ohms to the remaining 2 chanels would be 12.69each chanel at a 1Khz test tone? i am using the leat rms power in the formula weither the amp or speaker( if i have a 50rms amp chanel with 40rms speaker, i am using the 40rms as being the power that i want to output).</p><p></p><p>thx a lot guys</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="DIGIDIGIBOMBO, post: 1037355, member: 562297"] Hi, i would like to know y do we use a 1Khz at 0dB test tone for testing the speakers, and 45Hz at 0dB for the sub. Is it cause the 1Khz is maximum the frequency that will out out me the most power from amp to speakers? same thing for the subs ( 45 Hz)?? when i want to set the HU volume, i use the 1Khz test tone, and i should be disconecting the sub while doing this? i have a 50rms per channel amp, i am bridging it to use a 300 rms sub at 4ohms, so i must have 28.284Volts at a test tone of 45Hz? and 2 speakers 40rms each and 4 ohms to the remaining 2 chanels would be 12.69each chanel at a 1Khz test tone? i am using the leat rms power in the formula weither the amp or speaker( if i have a 50rms amp chanel with 40rms speaker, i am using the 40rms as being the power that i want to output). thx a lot guys [/QUOTE]
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