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Amplifiers
Can you really hear the difference between amps?
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<blockquote data-quote="squeak9798" data-source="post: 3945960" data-attributes="member: 555320"><p>Your impression is somewhat right, but your conclusion is wrong.</p><p></p><p>The amplifier isn't perfect. It might add a small, measurable amount of distortion to the signal. It might have a small, measurable amount of noise.</p><p></p><p>The questions are 1) what parameters of an amplifier's performance affect the sound, and 2) what difference in level of these parameters must be present to affect the sound.</p><p></p><p>Can you hear a difference between 1% THD+N and .02% THD+N with music ? The answer as demonstrated through scientific testing thus far has indicated that no, you can not hear a difference. Is the signal altered from the original ? Yes, it is. But it was not altered to a point that the it caused an audible change in sound.</p><p></p><p>In order for two amplifiers to sound different there <strong>must</strong> be an audible and measurable difference in the power, frequency response, distortion, noise or gain. If you heard a difference, you will be able to measure a significant difference in one of those parameters. If you measure two amplifiers and those parameters measure within inaudible tolerances then the amplifiers will be audibly indistinguishable regardless of the design of the amplifier, the parts used, the brand name, etc. Majority of amplifiers will fall into this later category. When tested in an environment where the variables are properly isolated (proper power and gain matching, elimination of psychoacoustic effects, etc) they will not impart a significant enough change in the previously mentioned parameters to audibly affect the sound.</p><p></p><p></p><p>This goes back to proper isolation of variables. As I've said previously, I've yet to see an amateur amplifier comparison conducted in such a way as to make the results valid. The differences heard were very likely due to either differences in setup, power or psychoacoustic effects.</p><p></p><p>Lets just assume for a second though that one amplifier had a significant (audible) frequency response anomaly in the midrange. You could very easily add a basic equalizer to the system (if it didn't already have one, since most even midlevel HU's have decent EQ's built in) to either 1) smooth the frequency response of the amplifier back to flat or 2) adjust the frequency response of any other amplifier to have the same frequency response anomaly. Both instances would again result in that amplifier being audibly indistinguishable from another amplifier with the same power, distortion and noise.</p><p></p><p></p><p>And that point of view is contradictory to the evidence, sorry to say.</p><p></p><p>Majority of amplifiers on the market have inaudible levels of distortion, flat frequency response over their intended bandwidth and inaudible levels of noise. That only leaves differences in power and user-set gain structure.</p><p></p><p>Do they <em>all</em> fall into that category ? No, absolutely not. But we know that <strong>IF</strong> one amp "sounds different", we can measure <em>exactly</em> what is causing that difference. And going back to my example of the amplifier with the frequency response anomaly.....maybe that is a Hi-Fi amplifier with a high price tag and the anomaly causes it to have a "warm" sound that many audiophiles love. Well, since we can directly attribute the change in sound to the frequency response, and we know that we can achieve that same "Hi-fi" sound with a less costly amplifier and simple equalizer ! Would you rather spend $1k for that Hi-Fi amp, or $500 for an amp+EQ and achieve the same results ?</p><p></p><p>Of course that's just a hypothetical example.......but it illustrates the point and shows some of the advantages to having this knowledge.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="squeak9798, post: 3945960, member: 555320"] Your impression is somewhat right, but your conclusion is wrong. The amplifier isn't perfect. It might add a small, measurable amount of distortion to the signal. It might have a small, measurable amount of noise. The questions are 1) what parameters of an amplifier's performance affect the sound, and 2) what difference in level of these parameters must be present to affect the sound. Can you hear a difference between 1% THD+N and .02% THD+N with music ? The answer as demonstrated through scientific testing thus far has indicated that no, you can not hear a difference. Is the signal altered from the original ? Yes, it is. But it was not altered to a point that the it caused an audible change in sound. In order for two amplifiers to sound different there [B]must[/B] be an audible and measurable difference in the power, frequency response, distortion, noise or gain. If you heard a difference, you will be able to measure a significant difference in one of those parameters. If you measure two amplifiers and those parameters measure within inaudible tolerances then the amplifiers will be audibly indistinguishable regardless of the design of the amplifier, the parts used, the brand name, etc. Majority of amplifiers will fall into this later category. When tested in an environment where the variables are properly isolated (proper power and gain matching, elimination of psychoacoustic effects, etc) they will not impart a significant enough change in the previously mentioned parameters to audibly affect the sound. This goes back to proper isolation of variables. As I've said previously, I've yet to see an amateur amplifier comparison conducted in such a way as to make the results valid. The differences heard were very likely due to either differences in setup, power or psychoacoustic effects. Lets just assume for a second though that one amplifier had a significant (audible) frequency response anomaly in the midrange. You could very easily add a basic equalizer to the system (if it didn't already have one, since most even midlevel HU's have decent EQ's built in) to either 1) smooth the frequency response of the amplifier back to flat or 2) adjust the frequency response of any other amplifier to have the same frequency response anomaly. Both instances would again result in that amplifier being audibly indistinguishable from another amplifier with the same power, distortion and noise. And that point of view is contradictory to the evidence, sorry to say. Majority of amplifiers on the market have inaudible levels of distortion, flat frequency response over their intended bandwidth and inaudible levels of noise. That only leaves differences in power and user-set gain structure. Do they [I]all[/I] fall into that category ? No, absolutely not. But we know that [B]IF[/B] one amp "sounds different", we can measure [I]exactly[/I] what is causing that difference. And going back to my example of the amplifier with the frequency response anomaly.....maybe that is a Hi-Fi amplifier with a high price tag and the anomaly causes it to have a "warm" sound that many audiophiles love. Well, since we can directly attribute the change in sound to the frequency response, and we know that we can achieve that same "Hi-fi" sound with a less costly amplifier and simple equalizer ! Would you rather spend $1k for that Hi-Fi amp, or $500 for an amp+EQ and achieve the same results ? Of course that's just a hypothetical example.......but it illustrates the point and shows some of the advantages to having this knowledge. [/QUOTE]
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Can you really hear the difference between amps?
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