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another *FacePalm* Question....

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Tek18

Tek18
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sorry for such dumb questions im just curios

k so i have a FI SSD 15"... bought it at 2ohms

im sure there are other ways to wire it but + to + will make it 1ohm and + to - will make it up to 4ohm.

what if i bought a 1ohm amp and wired the sub at 1ohm, and played it at 1200 Watts RMS

then i bought a different amp, that could handle 4ohms at 1200 Watts, and i wired it up to 4ohms and played my sub at 4ohms 1200 watts

what will the difference in this be?

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sorry for such dumb questions im just curios
k so i have a FI SSD 15"... bought it at 2ohms

im sure there are other ways to wire it but + to + will make it 1ohm and + to - will make it up to 4ohm.

what if i bought a 1ohm amp and wired the sub at 1ohm, and played it at 1200 Watts RMS

then i bought a different amp, that could handle 4ohms at 1200 Watts, and i wired it up to 4ohms and played my sub at 4ohms 1200 watts

what will the difference in this be?
Click to expand...
If it were a perfect world and those were the only variables... nothing would be different.

In this case you're better off at 1 ohm. That's really all you need to know.

 
If it were a perfect world and those were the only variables... nothing would be different.In this case you're better off at 1 ohm. That's really all you need to know.
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Sounds good, So im guessing the higher ohm load on amps is for speakers when you have so many you can't wire them all back down to 1ohm?

 
If the ohm load is higher (4 ohm vs 1 ohm) it would be less of a draw on your electrical. Somebody correct me if I'm wrong here?
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if the amp were made to put out the same power wired at that impedence, it would theoretically have the same draw. In reality there aren't any class d amplifiers that put out that power at 4 ohms that I'm aware of. So it would actually draw much more than the class d to put out the same power.

 
If the ohm load is higher (4 ohm vs 1 ohm) it would be less of a draw on your electrical. Somebody correct me if I'm wrong here?
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through the same amplifier, but if i have 2 different amps and at 4ohms and at 1ohm on 2 different amps they both pull the same amount, i was just curious the difference

 
if the amp were made to put out the same power wired at that impedence, it would theoretically have the same draw. In reality there aren't any class d amplifiers that put out that power at 4 ohms that I'm aware of. So it would actually draw much more than the class d to put out the same power.
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my KICKER is rated at 1500 @ 4 //content.invisioncic.com/y282845/emoticons/fyi.gif.9f1f679348da7204ce960cfc74bca8e0.gif

 
if the amp were made to put out the same power wired at that impedence, it would theoretically have the same draw. In reality there aren't any class d amplifiers that put out that power at 4 ohms that I'm aware of. So it would actually draw much more than the class d to put out the same power.
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Correct. I guess what I'm saying is, he will need a stronger electrical system for an amp putting out 1,500w at 1 ohm vs an amp putting out 1,500w at 4 ohm. Right? Or am I way off here?

 
The supply voltage is the same. It's a constant. Let's assume 12.6v. Assuming both amplifiers have the same efficiency, let's say 85%. They both put out 1500w. So, they would both draw 136.9 amps of current. What about this do you disagree with?

 
The supply voltage is the same. It's a constant. Let's assume 12.6v. Assuming both amplifiers have the same efficiency, let's say 85%. They both put out 1500w. So, they would both draw 136.9 amps of current. What about this do you disagree with?
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I'm not disagreeing with any of it. I'm just thinking the theory I've known all along is way off lol

 
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Tek18

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