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Just a question about impedance rise.... Does nominal impedance matter?

Here is the question coming from a noob, brace yourself.

**Does nominal impedance matter as to how much rise or drop there is?**

Example- useing numbers from n3w_3ra's post

*Quote from initial clamp *

Wired to 1 ohm nominal :

1170 Watts @ 12.5 volts

1.97 ohms after impedance rise

Wired to 0.5 ohm nominal :

1490 Watts @ 11.1 volts

0.85 ohms after impedance rise

Ok, so considering there was a rise of .97 when nominal impedance was at 1ohm and rise of .35 from .5ohm. So would it be ignorant to assume possibly with a higher nominal impedance a rise or fall of impedance would be more drastic? Say If I were to wire 4 subs to a 2ohm load think it would rise more than it would with a .5ohm load?

And please note this is all just theoretically speaking/asking/whatever. Im using this knowledge toward buying a matching amp for my current build. Have 4 dual 4ohm subs on the way and am debating on final impedance to pair with an amp or 2. Either Choice A: Get a large powerful amp (2500+@ 2ohm) and run on 2ohms. Choice B: Get a well made smaller amp (2500+) and run at .5ohm. Or Choice C: a couple of amps and run each pair of subs at 4ohms.

Also note if it appears im taking this too far out of proportion ill just do what i been thinking, just say fug it buy a lanzar opti4001d and run at .5 ohm for 4000 watts.

Jeep WJ limited Infinity gold system w/ alpine speakers and tweeters.

Big 3, 2/0 everywhere! 225a alty, Us Md2d on 2 IDQ 10's @ 34hz

**Reff's-** Buck, BassAddictj,Bigbassjoel, corysquires

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**I need a us amps 4ch. for componets perfer Merlin**

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