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View Full Version : does it matter if speakers are out of phase if there BOTH wired the same way?



Twistid
08-25-2006, 05:47 PM
all my interior speakers are blown, so i took some speakers out of my buick and put them in my mercury but the tabs dident match up so i cut the stock speaker harness and just hard wired it to the tinsle leads, works fine, at first one speaker was wired out of phase with the other but i switched the wires around and they both sound fine (just 2 rear 6x9's i had laying around)

so even if there both wired incorrectly (the pos to neg and neg to pos) if there BOTH wired incorrectly the same way it shouldent matter? also im only listening to the rear speakers since the front's are still blown so it dosent matter if there wired out of phase with the fronts

alphakenny1
08-25-2006, 05:48 PM
actually it does matter if you want to be ****. the time arrival to your years from both speakers will be different. since one of them is out of phase, one speaker will reach your ears before the other one.

alphakenny1
08-25-2006, 05:53 PM
oops misread it. so i guess its fine.

Twistid
08-25-2006, 05:54 PM
no there both in phase with each other, they just may BOTH be wired incorrectly the same way (get what im saying?)

once i get some fronts then i will go and make sure there all wired correctly , it was just a pain in the *** because the right rear had a pink+green wire and a white+something else, and then the rear left had both grey wires , i dont know how thats supposed to work but whatever, i guess thats what happens when mercury = ford

thch
08-26-2006, 07:33 PM
this is the classic "absolute phase" argument. (note) there is a popular online guide about "why absolute phase is important". this article describes superposition of waves. sadly, in the article, absolute phase is misdefined.

the classic argument is "does a phase inversion of the source material impact sound?"

the arguments are intersting. on one hand people will look at the dynamics of the sound and ear, along with statistics. basically the argument for absolute phase inversion audibility involves the fast transients of music, coupled with the ear's effects on sharply pressurizing wave fronts vs sharply depressurizing wave fronts. finally there is question as to what version is natural/correct, as well as questions of the recording process in general.

some contest that minute differences can be heard. others contest that it is merely all in the heads of the listeners.


*absolute phase is merely relative phase, except one of the phases is the "reference phase". in audio, the "reference phase" is the musical recording or the original sound source.